OCP-related Discussions > Correct (?) Answers to Bidding Problems
[Bidding problem] OCP simple system
brian_m:
--- Quote from: OliverC on April 24, 2019, 07:51:47 AM ---
The simple 1 !D responses are geared to make it really hard to miss a 4-4 (or even a viable 4-3) Major fit when we're not strong enough to play beyond the 2-level (which is quite a lot of the time, let's face it).
--- End quote ---
If I may be forgiven a small amount of advertising, if you want to be sure of finding your major fits and greatly reduce the chances of playing in some silly !D contracts, then in 3rd and 4th seats I really do recommend that you give the 1 !D/1NT scheme from my old system a try. It's in the 'alternative treatments' forum. You should ONLY use this when responder is a passed hand, and cannot have a GF response. Oliver doesn't like the scheme because it means you give up on the pre-emptive 1NT opener (all 11-15 balanced hands are opened 1 !D, 1NT is reserved for hands with genuine !D) and I absolutely accept that he has a point, but having played the scheme for something in excess of 30 years, I'm firmly convinced that it's a net positive. I did have a scheme for using those NF must-show-a-4CM-even-with-0-HCP responses with an unpassed responder, but I absolutely accept OCP's superiority (yes, both the simple and the complex systems) when responder is unlimited.
--- Quote from: OliverC on April 24, 2019, 07:51:47 AM ---One of the major criticisms of the Complex 1 !D is that it can make it much harder to find a 4-4 Major fit at a low level. Jason and I accepted that (albeit with some reluctance) because of it's perceived advantages in some other areas, but in reality there isn't much to choose between the Simple 1 !D and the Complex 1 !D .
--- End quote ---
I think I'm correct in saying that, apart from Oliver, I'm probably the one in this group with the greatest experience with the Complex 1 !D, and Oliver is, of course, absolutely correct about the problems. All that I want to add, having now had some experience with the Simple 1 !D, is that my opinion is that in playing the Complex 1 !D, you sacrifice something on the weaker part scores in exchange for significant improvements on invitational and GF hands (the Complex 1 !D is also a much greater load on the memory!). Personally, I think that's a worthwhile exchange.
FeaxSA:
I totally disagree with you John and and im in the same wave with Oliver. Just think John that p for many reasons dont want to play 1NT but he want to play 1!S (he can pass) even in a Moysian fit..........
lute57:
For some dumb reason, I was thinking the auction as 1 !D-(1 !H)-P-(P)-? Don't ask me why, because after rereading it, Marcus was clear as the dickens it ran as 1 !D-(P)-1 !H-(P)-? :-[ Maybe, playing too much rugby as a loosehead prop at age 60+ is having an affect on my big cranium. :o
Anyway, if the auction was different - such as 1 !D-(1 !H)-P-(P)-? - are we still all going with 1 !S as rebid? Or X (in case of a trap pass by partner)? Or 1NT to clarify hand type?
brian_m:
Assuming that partner would make a negative double of the 1 !H overcall with 4 card !S unless horribly weak, there's no way I'm bidding 1 !S on !S J987 - if we don't end up buying the hand, the last thing I want is a !S lead! Cases could be made for 1NT, double and even a pass, depending on vulnerability, what you know of your partner's style and probably even the day of the week, but (at least for me) 1 !S isn't even on the list of possibilities. Now, if you were to take that hand and swap the two black suits, so that I have !S AK102 and !C J987, now 1 !S would be my choice.
Jimmy:
Rebid 1 !S 20 times out of 10:
(1) It's more constructive
(2) The priority in your bidding should be to find "somewhere else" to play. Finding a Major suit fit is the No 1 priority and opting to play in NT's in the absence of a Major fit is a close second.
(3) Depending on how the subsequent bidding goes, partner will realise that you may be 13-15 balanced, even when you've rebid 1 !S . Rebidding 1NT, however, categorically denies having 4-card Spades and nothing you do subsequently would ever convince an OCP Partner that you have a 4th Spade.
I would quibble with Oliver's answer - I think 20 times out of 10 is an underestimate! ;)
I agree with both Oliver and Brian's comments. In the example given, IMO opener should definitely bid 1 !S for a variety of reasons:
1. It is the general system rule (unless modified by partnership).
2. The 1 !S bid should still be considered one round forcing.
3. Opener can still have up to 15 HCP and in this example has 14 HCP with 3-10's, a QJ10 + J987 combos.
4. Responder has shown 8+ HCP with the 1 !H response and also can still have up to 15 HCP's.
5. The 1 !S bid allows responder to show his values/distribution.
6. And 1NT by opener sort of indicates a minimum hand.
JMO, Jim
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